Preparing for the verbal GRE test can feel daunting, but with the right approach and resources, you can conquer the Verbal Reasoning section with confidence.
This comprehensive guide walks you through everything you need for effective GRE verbal practice – from understanding the question formats to tackling practice tests and reviewing your answers. Along the way, you’ll discover how EverTutor’s unique features – like personalized vocabulary training, adaptive practice, and UniSuggest – can supercharge your prep.
The Verbal Reasoning section of the GRE tests your ability to understand, evaluate, and synthesize written material.
It includes three major question types:
These questions are designed to evaluate how well you understand the structure, tone, and logic of a passage. You'll be asked to analyze arguments, identify assumptions, infer meanings, and distinguish between major and minor ideas.
How to tackle Reading Comprehension:
In Text Completion, you're given a sentence (or short paragraph) with one, two, or three blanks. Your job is to select the most appropriate words to fill in the blanks and complete a meaningful sentence.
How to approach Text Completion:
These questions consist of a single sentence with one blank and six answer choices. You must choose two words that complete the sentence in a way that creates two sentences with equivalent meaning.
How to approach Sentence Equivalence:
1. Although the professor was known for his ____________ demeanor in lectures, his published research was surprisingly radical.
(A) placid
(B) unorthodox
(C) reticent
(D) conventional
(E) aggressive
Answer: (A) placid
Explanation: The word “although” indicates contrast. A “radical” researcher who’s calm in lectures suggests the correct blank should be a word meaning calm—placid.
2. The scientist’s theory was so __________ that even those in unrelated disciplines took notice.
(A) esoteric
(B) groundbreaking
(C) derivative
(D) redundant
(E) myopic
Answer: (B) groundbreaking
Explanation: The fact that it attracted attention across disciplines implies novelty and impact—hence “groundbreaking.”
3. Her remarks were intended to be __________, but many perceived them as offensive.
(A) candid
(B) conciliatory
(C) humorous
(D) provocative
(E) tactful
Answer: (C) humorous
Explanation: The contrast clue “but” signals a mismatch between intention and perception—she aimed to amuse, not offend.
4. The politician’s speech was so full of __________ that listeners struggled to understand her actual stance.
(A) clarity
(B) equivocation
(C) precision
(D) resolution
(E) emphasis
Answer: (B) equivocation
Explanation: “Struggled to understand” implies deliberate vagueness or ambiguity—equivocation fits best.
5. The committee’s decision was based on __________ evidence, leading to widespread criticism.
(A) compelling
(B) incontrovertible
(C) inconclusive
(D) exhaustive
(E) ample
Answer: (C) inconclusive
Explanation: “Widespread criticism” suggests the evidence wasn’t solid—“inconclusive” directly supports that.
6. The artist’s work is admired for its __________ of classic technique with modern flair.
(A) juxtaposition
(B) repudiation
(C) clash
(D) discord
(E) severance
Answer: (A) juxtaposition
Explanation: A positive blend of styles is best described by “juxtaposition,” which suggests thoughtful contrast.
7. He approached the controversial issue with __________, carefully weighing both sides before forming an opinion.
(A) bias
(B) ambivalence
(C) temerity
(D) circumspection
(E) dogmatism
Answer: (D) circumspection
Explanation: “Carefully weighing” suggests caution and thoughtfulness—circumspection means precisely that.
8. Despite their __________ beginnings, the startup managed to grow into a profitable enterprise.
(A) auspicious
(B) dismal
(C) dubious
(D) fortunate
(E) promising
Answer: (B) dismal
Explanation: “Despite” sets up a contrast with success. A poor start fits best—“dismal.”
9. The __________ tone of the documentary suggested a clear bias against the company’s practices.
(A) laudatory
(B) accusatory
(C) objective
(D) balanced
(E) indifferent
Answer: (B) accusatory
Explanation: “Bias against” suggests the tone was critical or blaming—“accusatory” is the best match.
10. The CEO’s remarks were so __________ that several board members walked out in protest.
(A) inflammatory
(B) conciliatory
(C) placid
(D) provocative
(E) benign
(F) inciting
Answers: (A), (D)
Explanation: Both “inflammatory” and “provocative” suggest speech that stirs up strong reactions.
11. Despite the film’s __________ pace, audiences remained engaged due to the compelling plot.
(A) sluggish
(B) brisk
(C) plodding
(D) tedious
(E) slow
(F) dynamic
Answers: (A), (E)
Explanation: The contrast set by “despite” points to a slow pace—“sluggish” and “slow” both fit.
12. The mayor’s __________ response to the crisis drew heavy criticism from the media.
(A) decisive
(B) nonchalant
(C) apathetic
(D) proactive
(E) indifferent
(F) casual
Answers: (B), (E)
Explanation: Both words suggest a lack of concern, which aligns with why the response was criticized.
13. The scientist was known for her __________, never overselling her findings or exaggerating results.
(A) modesty
(B) flamboyance
(C) humility
(D) charisma
(E) integrity
(F) reserve
Answers: (A), (C)
Explanation: The clue “never overselling” points to humble traits—“modesty” and “humility.”
14. His theory was both __________ and controversial, leading to a split among the academic community.
(A) pioneering
(B) pedestrian
(C) innovative
(D) derivative
(E) groundbreaking
(F) orthodox
Answers: (A), (C)
Explanation: Controversial + split suggests something new or unusual—“pioneering” and “innovative” match.
15. The speaker’s __________ delivery lulled the audience into a state of drowsiness.
(A) soporific
(B) animated
(C) dull
(D) tedious
(E) monotonous
(F) stimulating
Answers: (A), (E)
Explanation: “Lulled into drowsiness” indicates a sleep-inducing tone—“soporific” and “monotonous.”
16. The philanthropist’s efforts to help the underprivileged were largely seen as __________.
(A) selfless
(B) magnanimous
(C) strategic
(D) altruistic
(E) indifferent
(F) noble
Answers: (B), (D)
Explanation: Helping the underprivileged = generous and kind—“altruistic” and “magnanimous.”
17. The project was terminated because the proposed plan was deemed too __________ to implement.
(A) impractical
(B) ambitious
(C) feasible
(D) unrealistic
(E) idealistic
(F) convoluted
Answers: (A), (D)
Explanation: If it can’t be implemented, it’s likely “unrealistic” and “impractical.”
18. The detective’s __________ approach enabled her to uncover clues others had missed.
(A) meticulous
(B) careless
(C) thorough
(D) hasty
(E) precise
(F) attentive
Answers: (A), (C)
Explanation: Successfully uncovering clues implies careful work—“meticulous” and “thorough.”
Plastic pollution has emerged as a pressing global issue due to its long-lasting effects and prevalence in virtually every ecosystem. Unlike organic materials, plastic takes hundreds of years to decompose, and its resilience has led to the accumulation of vast amounts in landfills and oceans. In particular, oceanic plastic pollution has become increasingly problematic; discarded plastics not only endanger marine species but also enter the food chain, eventually affecting human health. While biodegradable packaging offers a partial solution, such alternatives are not yet cost-effective or widely available. Governments have implemented various recycling programs, but many of these are underfunded or inefficient. The root of the problem lies in a culture of disposability, where single-use plastics dominate consumer habits due to convenience and low cost.
19. What is the primary purpose of the passage?
(A) To propose stricter laws against plastic use
(B) To argue in favor of biodegradable plastic alternatives
(C) To highlight the dangers and challenges of plastic pollution
(D) To explain how plastic is manufactured and used
(E) To describe marine species endangered by plastic
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The entire passage focuses on describing the problem of plastic pollution and why it persists.
20. According to the passage, why is oceanic plastic pollution particularly concerning?
(A) It is easier to see than land-based pollution
(B) It endangers marine species and contaminates the food chain
(C) It is regulated more strictly than other forms of pollution
(D) It does not decompose like land-based materials
(E) It is caused by industrial waste rather than consumer behavior
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The passage explicitly states that oceanic plastic enters the food chain and harms marine life.
21.The tone of the author in the passage can best be described as:
(A) celebratory
(B) neutral
(C) informative yet critical
(D) persuasive and emotional
(E) dismissive
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The author presents facts while criticizing inefficiencies and consumer habits.
22. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
(A) Biodegradable packaging is widely available but underused
(B) Recycling programs are the most effective solution to plastic waste
(C) Plastic consumption has significantly decreased in recent years
(D) Changing consumer behavior is critical to reducing plastic pollution
(E) Plastic is the only major pollutant affecting the oceans
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The passage discusses the “culture of disposability,” implying consumer behavior is key.
23. The phrase “culture of disposability” most likely refers to:
(A) A tendency to recycle responsibly
(B) A societal norm that values convenience over sustainability
(C) Cultural traditions of indigenous groups
(D) The use of compostable materials in food packaging
(E) Scientific communities addressing pollution
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The context suggests criticism of throwaway habits driven by convenience.
24. Why does the author mention 'biodegradable packaging' in the passage?
(A) To demonstrate a failed solution
(B) To offer a fully proven method for addressing the issue
(C) To illustrate a promising but limited alternative
(D) To highlight the most cost-effective approach
(E) To suggest banning plastic outright
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The author acknowledges its potential but notes limited availability and high cost.
25. Which of the following best reflects the author’s view on government recycling efforts?
(A) They are comprehensive and successful
(B) They represent a minor part of the solution
(C) They are generally effective when paired with education
(D) They are often underfunded and not very effective
(E) They should be eliminated in favor of consumer action
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The passage directly states recycling programs are “underfunded or inefficient.”
26. What property of plastic is most responsible for its accumulation in ecosystems?
(A) Its low manufacturing cost
(B) Its invisibility in oceans
(C) Its ability to pollute the air
(D) Its resistance to decomposition
(E) Its popularity among consumers
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The passage says plastic takes “hundreds of years to decompose,” contributing to its persistence.
27. Which of the following best summarizes the author’s argument?
(A) Government regulations alone can solve the plastic crisis
(B) Plastic pollution is a serious issue fueled by culture and policy gaps
(C) Ocean pollution is worse than land pollution and needs global attention
(D) Biodegradable packaging is a complete solution to plastic waste
(E) Plastic has become less of a concern in recent years
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The author emphasizes the scale of the problem and points to both consumer culture and policy failures.
These questions ask you to fill in 1, 2, or 3 blanks using the most context-appropriate words.
Core Strategy:
Tips:
You’ll fill in a blank with two words that lead to equivalent meaning in the sentence.
Core Strategy:
Tips:
RC questions are based on passages and test your ability to understand arguments, structure, tone, and evidence.
Core Strategy:
Tips:
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A “good” GRE Verbal score depends on your target universities and programs. For top graduate programs, a score of 160+ is typically considered competitive. Elite programs in humanities or social sciences may expect even higher scores (163+), while STEM programs may place more weight on Quant.
Effective preparation includes:
ETS Official Guides are the gold standard for realistic GRE questions. The questions in this blog are modeled closely after ETS difficulty and style. If you can consistently perform well here, you're likely on track for a 160+ score.
Absolutely—with the right strategy. Focus on:
EverTutor’s AI tutor and analytics can help pinpoint weaknesses and optimize your prep in a short time.
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